AIPMT - All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test

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  1. 1)

    Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on block B is:

    • A) 100 N
    • B) 80 N
    • C) 120 N
    • D) 150 N

  2. 2)

    A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to:

    • A) 44 %
    • B) 50 %
    • C) 56 %
    • D) 62 %

  3. 3)

    A red LED emits light at 0.1 watt uniformly around it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of 1 m from the diode is:

    • A) 1.73 V/m
    • B) 2.45 V/m
    • C) 5.48 V/m
    • D) 7.75 V/m

  4. 4)

    A On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases with height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam:

    • A) becomes narrower
    • B) goes horizontally without any deflection
    • C) bends downwards
    • D) bends upwards

  5. 5)

    Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of 25 cm, the minimum separation between two objects that human eye can resolve at 500 nm wavelength is:

    • A) 1 μm
    • B) 30 μm
    • C) 100 μm
    • D) 300 μm

  6. 6)

    As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like atom/ ion:

    • A) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
    • B) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
    • C) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same
    • D) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases

  7. 7)

    A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. the frequencies of the resultant signal is/are:

    • A) 2 MHz only
    • B) 2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz
    • C) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
    • D) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz


  9. 8)

    Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius of sodium atom is approximately

    • A) 1.86 Å
    • B) 3.22 Å
    • C) 5.72 Å
    • D) 0.93 Å

  10. 9)

    Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen?

    • A) +13.6 eV
    • B) –6.8 eV
    • C) –3.4 eV
    • D) –3.4 eV

  11. 10)

    The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is

    • A) Ion-ion interaction
    • B) Ion-dipole interaction
    • C) London force
    • D) Hydrogen bond

  12. 11)

    The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass of the substance is:

    • A) 32
    • B) 64
    • C) 128
    • D) 488

  13. 12)

    Two faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)

    • A) 0 g
    • B) 63.5 g
    • C) 2 g
    • D) 127 g

  14. 13)

    Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to

    • A) Low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
    • B) Increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved
    • C) Shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions
    • D) Loss of active species on collision

  15. 14)

    3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is

    • A) 18 mg
    • B) 36 mg
    • C) 42 mg
    • D) 54 mg


  17. 15)

    Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements:

    (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock
    (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
    (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
    (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes is sporophytic
    (E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte.

    • A) (A),(C) and (D)
    • B) (B),(C) and (D)
    • C) (A),(D) and (E)
    • D) (B),(C) and (E)

  18. 16)

    In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living

    • A) Funaria
    • B) Marchantia
    • C) Pteris
    • D) Pinus

  19. 17)

    Which one of the following statements is wrong?

    • A) Algin and carrageen are products of algae
    • B) Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
    • C) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
    • D) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

  20. 18)

    The guts of cow and buffalo possess

    • A) Fucus spp.
    • B) Chlorella spp.
    • C) Methanogens
    • D) Cyanobacteria

  21. 19)

    Male gametes are flagellated in

    • A) Polysiphonia
    • B) anabaena
    • C) Ectocarpus
    • D) Spirogyra

  22. 20)

    Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because

    • A) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
    • B) Cambium is absent
    • C) There are no vessels with perforations
    • D) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

  23. 21)

    A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of

    • A) Open vascular bundles
    • B) Scattered vascular bundles
    • C) Vasculature without cambium
    • D) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem along the radius

  24. 22)

    Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of

    • A) Tulip
    • B) Indigofera
    • C) Aloe
    • D) Tomato

  25. 23)

    Perigynous flowers are found in

    • A) Guava
    • B) Cucumber
    • C) China rose
    • D) Rose

  26. 24)

    Leaves become modified into spins in

    • A) Opuntia
    • B) Pea
    • C) Onion
    • D) Silk Cotton

  27. 25)

    The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are

    • A) Cristae
    • B) Grana
    • C) Stroma lamellae
    • D) Stroma

  28. 26)

    The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are

    • A) Metacentric
    • B) Acrocentric
    • C) Telocentric
    • D) Sub-metacentric

  29. 27)

    Select the correct matching in the following pairs

    • A) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
    • B) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
    • C) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
    • D) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids

  30. 28)

    True nucleus is absent in

    • A) Anabaena
    • B) Mucor
    • C) Vaucheria
    • D) Volvox