Financial Statement Analysis Quiz#4, MCQs
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1)
Which one of the following is NOT a limitation of financial statements?
- A) They always present past
- B) They always present the monetary terms
- C) They help in assessment of future profitability
- D) They give no information about management and employee relations
Right Answer is the option "C"
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2)
Which of the following business owner is personally liable for its debts?
- A) Sole proprietorship
- B) Corporations
- C) General partnership
- D) Limited liability company
Right Answer is the option "A" Sole proprietorship A business entity owned by a single individual, which is unincorporated. The owner of a sole proprietorship is personally liable for any debts or obligations of the business.
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3)
Which of the following characteristics is NOT generally regarded as right of common shareholders?
- A) Preemptive right
- B) Voting rights
- C) Preference in liquidation
- D) Transferability of shares
Right Answer is the option "C" Common shareholders are entitled only to the residual interest in a liquidation; creditors and preferred shareholders have the preference. In the absence of modification, common shares hold a preemptive right, have voting privileges, and are readily transferable.
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4)
In the vertical analysis of income statement, all the accounts are expressed as a percentage of which of the following?
- A) Net sales
- B) Gross sales
- C) Net income
- D) Total expenses
Right Answer is the option "A"
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5)
The changes in the financial statement items from a base year to following years are often expressed as which of the following?
- A) Trend percentages
- B) Component percentages
- C) Common percentages
- D) Both trend and component percentages
Right Answer is the option "A"
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6)
Krisle and Kringle's debt-to-total assets ratio is 4%. What is its debt-to-equity ratio?
- A) 2%
- B) 7%
- C) 6%
- D) 3%
Right Answer is the option "C" Since the debt-to-total assets ratio is.4, then equity-to-total assets ratio is .6. The ratio of debt to equity is then .4/.6 or .667 (66.7%).
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7)
Which of the following could account for a company's gross profit ratio increasing from one period to the next?
- A) An increase in the cost of sales which has not been accompanied by an increase in the selling price of goods sold
- B) An increase in the selling price of goods sold which has not been accompanied by an increase in the cost of sales
- C) A change in the mix of goods sold so that lower profit margin goods take a greater proportion of total sales
- D) A change in stock valuation method at the year end which leads to a decrease in the closing stock figure
Right Answer is the option "B"
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8)
A company has a cost of goods sold of Rs. 530,000; the beginning inventory is Rs. 120,000, and ending inventory is Rs. 180,000. Calculate the number of days to sell the inventory. (Round the figures to the nearest whole)
- A) 83 days
- B) 125 days
- C) 104 days
- D) 100 days
Right Answer is the option "C" Average inventory = opening inv +ending inv / 2
= 120000+180000/ 2
= 150000
Inventory turnover = CGS / average inventory
= 530,000 / 150000
= 3.53
Number of day to sell the inventory = 365 / 3.53
= 103.39
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9)
Which one of the following statement indicates the Inventory turnover ratio?
- A) How quickly company prepared its inventory
- B) How quickly company converts its inventory into cash
- C) How quickly company purchases its inventory
- D) How quickly company sells its inventory
Right Answer is the option "D"
-
10)
Operating cycle belongs to which group of ratios?
- A) Leverage ratios
- B) Liquidity ratios
- C) Profitability ratios
- D) Activity ratios
Right Answer is the option "D"
Financial Statement Analysis Quiz#3, MCQs
-
1)
Which of the following statements (in general) is CORRECT?
- A) A low receivables turnover is desirable
- B) The lower the total debt-to-equity ratio, the lower the financial risk for a firm
- C) An increase in net profit margin with no change in sales or assets means a weaker ROI
- D) The higher the tax rate for a firm, the lower the interest coverage ratio
Right Answer is the option "B"
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2)
Oliver Incorporated has a current ratio equal to 1.6 and a quick ratio equal to 1.2. The company has Rs. 2 million in sales and its current liabilities are Rs. 1 million. what is the value of company's current assets?
- A) 1,600,000
- B) 1,200,000
- C) 3,200,000
- D) 2,400,000
Right Answer is the option "A"
Current ratio = current assets / current liabilities
Current assets = current ratio * current liabilities
= 1.6*1,000,000
= 1,600,000
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3)
Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding distributions to stockholders?
- A) The payment of dividends is not directly related to the profits of a given peri
- B) Shareholders can individually decide on their distributions
- C) To receive a corporate dividend, stock must be owned on the date of declaration
- D) Corporate dividends reduce contributed capital and therefore, stockholders’ equity
Right Answer is the option "A"
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4)
Cash flow relating to investing activities does NOT present the cash effects of which of the following?
- A) Plant assets
- B) Intangible assets
- C) Investments
- D) Debt financing
Right Answer is the option "D"
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5)
Office supplies are purchased on account. The company uses a perpetual inventory system. What is the correct journal entry for this purchase of office supplies?
- A) Debit - Purchases; Credit - Cash
- B) Debit - Merchandise Inventory; Credit - Cost of Goods Sold
- C) Debit - Office Supplies; Credit - Accounts Payable
- D) Debit - Merchandise Inventory; Credit - Accounts Payable
Right Answer is the option "C"
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6)
Which of the following is NOT true about the specific identification method?
- A) It requires a very detailed physical count
- B) This method allows management to easily manipulate ending inventory cost
- C) This method is very hard to use on interchangeable goods
- D) This results in an overstated inventory account during the period of inflation
Right Answer is the option "D"
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7)
Which of the following statements best describes the nature of depreciation?
- A) Regular reduction of asset value to correspond to the decline in market value as the asset ages
- B) A process of correlating the book value of an asset with its gradual decline in physical efficiency
- C) Allocation of the cost in a manner that will ensure that plant and equipment items are not carried on the balance sheet at amounts in excess of net realizable value
- D) Allocation of the cost of a plant asset to the periods in which benefits are received
Right Answer is the option "D"
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8)
Warner Corporation reported net income in excess of its net cash flow from operations. A possible explanation of this difference is:
- A) Depreciation expense
- B) Non operating gains
- C) A decrease in income tax rates
- D) A decrease in accounts receivable over the period
Right Answer is the option "A"
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9)
Which of the following opinions state that the financial statements do not present fairly the financial position, results of operations etc, in conformity with GAAP?
- A) Unqualified opinion
- B) Qualified opinion
- C) adverse opinion
- D) Disclaimer of opinion
Right Answer is the option "C"
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10)
In a statement of cash flows, the acquisition of land by issuing capital stock:
- A) Is not shown at all, since no cash was received or disbursed
- B) Is shown as an investing activity
- C) Is shown as a financing activity
- D) Is shown in a supplementary schedule as a non-cash investing and financing transaction
Right Answer is the option "D"
Financial Statement Analysis Quiz#2, MCQs
-
1)
Nishat Corporation had net income of Rs. 100,000, paid income taxes of Rs. 30,000, and had interest expense of Rs. 8,000. What was Nishat's times interest earned ratio?
- A) 12.5
- B) 16.25
- C) 17.25
- D) 17.85
Right Answer is the option "C" Times interest earned (TIE) ratio = EBIT/interest.
= 138000/8000
= 17.25
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2)
Operating cycle belongs to which group of ratios?
- A) Leverage ratios
- B) Liquidity ratios
- C) Profitability ratios
- D) Activity ratios
Right Answer is the option "D"
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3)
Assume that a company has current assets of Rs. 60,000, current liabilities of Rs. 35,000 and prepaid expenses of Rs. 5,000. Calculate the quick ratio of the company?
- A) 1.57
- B) 1.71
- C) 1.86
- D) 0.58
Right Answer is the option "A" Quick ratio = current assets – inventory – prepaid expenses / current liabilities
= 60000 – 5000 / 35000
= 55000 / 35000
= 1.57
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4)
Which of the following is NOT normally required for revenue to be recognized according to the revenue principle for accrual basis accounting?
- A) The price is fixed or determinable
- B) Services have been performed
- C) Cash that has already been collected
- D) Evidence of an arrangement for customer payment exists
Right Answer is the option "C"
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5)
Which of the following is a type of preferred stock that entitles the holder to a fixed dividend and, in addition, to the right to get any surplus profits after payment of agreed levels of dividends to holders of common stock?
- A) In arrears preferred shares
- B) Call able preferred shares
- C) Cumulative preferred shares
- D) Participating preferred shares
Right Answer is the option "D"
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6)
To financial analysts, "working capital" means the same thing as which of the following?
- A) Total assets
- B) Fixed assets
- C) Current assets
- D) Current assets minus current liabilities
Right Answer is the option "C"
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7)
What are the effects of an adjusting entry on the financial statements?
- A) Match revenues and expenditures
- B) Increase net income
- C) Increase the accuracy of balance sheet and income statement
- D) Match revenues and assets
Right Answer is the option "C"
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8)
ABC Company has a cost of goods sold of Rs. 500,000. During the year the inventory increased by Rs. 10,000 and accounts payable increased by Rs.C15, 000. The interest expense was Rs. 15,000 for the year and dividends of Rs.C11, 000 were paid during the year. What would be the cash payments for the purchase of the merchandise?
- A) Rs. 505,000
- B) Rs. 516,000
- C) Rs. 490,000
- D) Rs. 495,000
Right Answer is the option "D"
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9)
Which of the following valuation methods can distort the comparison between companies?
- A) Inventory valuation methods
- B) Assets valuation methods
- C) Sales valuation methods
- D) Expenses valuation methods
Right Answer is the option "A"
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10)
When dividends are paid to the shareholders they must be approved by which of the following authority?
- A) Board of directors
- B) Management
- C) Common Stockholders
- D) Preferred Stockholders
Right Answer is the option "A"
Financial Statement Analysis Quiz#1, MCQs
-
1)
In the vertical analysis of income statement, all the accounts are expressed as a percentage of which of the following?
- A) Net sales
- B) Gross sales
- C) Net income
- D) Total expenses
Right Answer is the option "A"
-
2)
A company has a cost of goods sold of Rs. 530,000; the beginning inventory is Rs. 120,000, and ending inventory is Rs. 180,000. Calculate the number of days to sell the inventory. (Round the figures to the nearest whole)
- A) 83 days
- B) 125 days
- C) 104 days
- D) 100 days
Right Answer is the option "C"
Average inventory = opening inv +ending inv / 2
= 120000+180000/ 2
= 150000
Inventory turnover = CGS / average inventory
= 530,000 / 150000
= 3.53
Number of day to sell the inventory = 365 / 3.53
= 103.39
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3)
Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental accounting equation?
- A) Assets + liabilities = owner's equity
- B) Assets = owner's equity
- C) Cash = assets
- D) Assets - liabilities = owner's equity
Right Answer is the option "D"
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4)
What will be effect of purchase of inventory on open account on quick ratio of the company?
- A) Increase
- B) No effect
- C) Decrease
Right Answer is the option "B"
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5)
Which of the following statement is the LEAST LIKELY to be correct?
- A) A firm that has a high degree of business risk is less likely to want to incur financial risk
- B) There exists little or no negotiation with suppliers of capital regarding the financing needs of the firm
- C) Financial ratios are relevant for making internal comparisons
- D) It is important to make external comparisons or financial ratios
Right Answer is the option "B"
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6)
Which of the following provides the basis for the trial balance?
- A) Income statement
- B) Statement of cash flow
- C) Ledger
- D) Adjusting entries
Right Answer is the option "C"
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7)
In order to know the percentage of assets financed by creditors, which of the following ratio is calculated?
- A) Debt Ratio
- B) Equity Ratio
- C) Operating credit Ratio
- D) Quick Ratio
Right Answer is the option "A"
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8)
The cash flow from investing activities shows the cash effects of which of the following?
- A) Income statement items
- B) Long term assets items
- C) Long term liability & stockholder’s equity
- D) Long term liability and long term assets
Right Answer is the option "B"
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9)
In a perpetual inventory system, which of the following is NOT part of the series of journal entries made when merchandise is sold on credit?
- A) Credit the Cost of Goods Sold account
- B) Credit the Sales account
- C) Credit the Merchandise Inventory account
- D) Debit the Accounts Receivable account
Right Answer is the option "A"
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10)
As stated in the audit report, or Report of Independent Accountants, the primary responsibility for a company's financial statements lies with which of the following?
- A) The owners of the company
- B) Independent financial analysts
- C) The auditors
- D) The company's management
Right Answer is the option "D"
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Accounting, Banking and Finance MCQs
Corporate Finance
Quiz # 4, MCQs
-
1)
Which one of the following statements applies to Dividend Growth Model?
- A) It is difficult to understand and use
- B) It is used for non-listed companies
- C) It is used for debt securities also
- D) It do not consider risk level of a security
Right Answer is the option "D". This approach does not take into account the risk level. There is no direct adjustment for the riskyness of the investment. For instance, there is no adjustment for the degree of certainty or uncertainty in estimated growth rate for dividends
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2)
Which of the following statements is true regarding Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)?
- A) WACC of a levered firm is greater than that of an un-levered firm
- B) WACC of a levered firm is lesser than that of an un-levered firm
- C) WACC of a levered firm is equal to that of an un-levered firm
- D) An Un-levered firm has zero WACC.
Right Answer is the option "A"
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3)
In which of the following situations, a company has the ability to pay off its short-term obligations easily?
- A) If the company has a positive working capital
- B) If the company has a negative working capital
- C) If the company has a zero working capital
- D) None of the given option
Right Answer is the option "A"
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4)
Which of the following is a re-structuring strategy in which employees buy a majority share in their own firm?
- A) Employee Dividend Scheme
- B) Employee Empowerment
- C) Employee Buyout
- D) Leverage Buyout
Right Answer is the option "C". It is a restructuring strategy in which employees buy a majority stake in their own firms
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5)
In the long run, a successful acquisition is one that:
- A) Enables the acquirer to make an all-equity purchase, thereby avoiding additional financial leverage
- B) Enables the acquirer to diversify its asset base
- C) Increases the market price of the acquirer's stock over what it would have been without the acquisition
- D) Increases the financial leverage of the firm
Right Answer is the option "C"
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6)
Which of the following formulas can be used to calculate the value of the firm while considering merger/acquisition?
- A) Value of all-equity financed firm + FV of tax benefits + Expected Bankruptcy Costs
- B) Value of all-equity financed firm + PV of tax benefits + Expected Bankruptcy Costs
- C) Value of all-equity financed firm + tax benefits + Expected Bankruptcy Costs
- D) Value of all-equity financed firm + Expected Bankruptcy Costs
Right Answer is the option "B"
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7)
A 30-year corporate bond issued in 1985 would now be traded in which of the following markets?
- A) Primary capital market
- B) Primary money market
- C) Primary money market
- D) Secondary capital market
Right Answer is the option "D"
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8)
Profitability and liquidity move in ________ direction whereas risk and profitability and risk move in _________ direction.
- A) Same; inverse
- B) Inverse; same
- C) Inverse; opposite
- D) Same; opposite
Right Answer is the option "B". Profitability varies inversely with liquidity; increased liquidity can be achieved at the expense of (decreased) profitability
Profitability & risk have same direction; in order to have greater profitability, we need to take greater risk. -
9)
In the money
- A) If the strike price and current market price are equal, an option would be termed as:
- B) Out of money
- C) At the money
- D) None of the given options
Right Answer is the option "C". If the strike price and current market price are equal, then it is known as “at-themoney"
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10)
Which of the following functions behind budget activity refers to monitoring, comparing information to a standard and taking corrective action?
- A) Planning
- B) Control
- C) Management
- D) None of the given options
Right Answer is the option "B"
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Accounting, Banking and Finance MCQs
Corporate Finance
Quiz # 3, MCQs
-
1)
All of the following could be the reasons for a subsidiary buyout EXCEPT
- A) The parent company is in financial distress
- B) The parent company needs cash
- C) The parent company prefers to sell the firm rather that liquidation
- D) The parent company wants liquidation
Right Answer is the option "D"
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2)
A firm can fix effective interest rate on its short-term investment to be made at some future date by doing which of the following?
- A) Borrowing local currency
- B) Borrowing base currency
- C) Selling a forward rate agreement
- D) Investing in liquid assets
Right Answer is the option "C"
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3)
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Option?
- A) An option creates an obligation for the holder
- B) An option creates a right and not the obligation for the holder
- C) Option seller is the option holder
- D) Option writer is the option holder
Right Answer is the option "B". An option is a contract that confers a right to buy or sell a specific quantity or asset – but not the obligation, at agreed price on or before the specified future date.
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4)
Which of the following could be used as a hedging tool against unfavorable movement in interest rate?
- A) Currency option
- B) Currency futures
- C) Interest rate option
- D) Currency SWAP
Right Answer is the option "C". When borrowing on variable interest rates, a firm may want to utilize option as hedging tool against the unfavorable interest rate movements over the full term of loan or deposit
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5)
Which of the following focuses on long-term investment decision-making process?
- A) Working Capital Management
- B) Capital Budgeting
- C) Cash Budgeting
- D) None
Right Answer is the option "B". Capital Budgeting is the planning process used to determine a firm's long term investments such as new machinery, replacement machinery, new plants, new products, and research and development projects.
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6)
“The firm has a reasonable amount of net working capital that leads to a low-risk position”.
The above statement belongs to:
- A) Aggressive working capital policy
- B) Conservative working capital policy
- C) Moderate working capital policy
- D) The statement is not related to any of the working capital
Right Answer is the option "B". Conservative working capital policy is described as the firm has a large amount of net working capital. It is a relatively low-risk position
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7)
Which of the following type of mergers occurs when one firm purchases other firms that produce similar or competing products?
- A) Horizontal
- B) Vertical
- C) Financial
- D) Conglomerate
Right Answer is the option "A". Horizontal merger: Two companies that are in direct competition and share the same product lines and markets.
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8)
The experts hired in evaluation stage of a public take over process DO NOT include which of the following?
- A) Legal consultants
- B) Accountants
- C) Shareholders
- D) Stock Brokers
Right Answer is the option "C". Predator company appoints experts – legal consultants, banks, accountants and stock brokers
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9)
Which of the following would be the outcome if the fixed rate in the forward rate agreement (FRA) is lower than the reference rate?
- A) The seller of the FRA makes a cash payment to the buyer.
- B) Both buyer and seller make payments to each other
- C) The buyer of the FRA makes a cash payment to the seller.
- D) Neither buyer nor seller makes any payment to each other.
Right Answer is the option "A"
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10)
A project would be financially feasible in which of the following situations?
- A) If Internal Rate of Return of a project is greater than zero
- B) If Net Present Value of a project is less than zero
- C) If the project has Profitability Index less than one
- D) If the project has Profitability Index greater than one
Right Answer is the option "D". The Projects with a profitability index ratio of more than one (PI >= 1.0) are considered
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Accounting, Banking and Finance MCQs
Corporate Finance
Quiz # 2, MCQs
-
1)
Which of the following is an anti takeover strategy in which the target company make significant efforts to resist a takeover bid e.g. by a major acquisition, issue new shares?
- A) Shark repellent
- B) Pac-man
- C) Poison pill
- D) Political pressure
Right Answer is the option "A"
-
2)
Corporate restructuring involves the restructuring of
- A) The assets and liabilities of the company
- B) The debt to equity structures of the company
- C) Cost minimization by the company
- D) All of the given options
Right Answer is the option "D"
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3)
Which of the following terms refer to the acquisition of another company using a significant amount of borrowed money (bonds or loans) to meet the cost of acquisition?
- A) Management Buyout
- B) Management Buy-In
- C) Leverage Buyout
- D) None of the given options
Right Answer is the option "C". The acquisition of another company using a significant amount of borrowed money (bonds or loans) to meet the cost of acquisition.
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4)
Which of the following is NOT among the categories of foreign risk?
- A) Transaction exposure
- B) Translation exposure
- C) Local exposure
- D) Economic exposure
Right Answer is the option "C". We can classify foreign risk exposure into three broad categories: • Transaction exposure • Translation exposure • Economic exposureWe can classify foreign risk exposure into three broad categories: • Transaction exposure • Translation exposure • Economic exposure
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5)
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding forward contracts?
- A) Reversing forward contract is difficult.
- B) Parties have to put an initial margin in forward contracts
- C) No size restriction is placed in forward contract
- D) Forward contract is made between parties and each party needs to confirm the credit worthiness of each other
Right Answer is the option "B"
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6)
Which of the following is the CORRECT statement regarding the Law of One Price? ►
- A) The law of one price applies to only tradeable goods
- B) The law of one price applies to all goods
- C) The law of one price applies to immovable goods
- D) The law of one price applies to services only
Right Answer is the option "A"
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7)
Which of the following is an expected rate of return on a bond if bought at its current market price and held to maturity?
- A) Yield to maturity
- B) Current yield
- C) Coupon yield
- D) Capital gains yield
Right Answer is the option "A". The yield to maturity (YTM), is the discount rate which returns the market price of the bond. It is thus the internal rate of return of an investment in the bond made at the observed price. YTM can also be used to price a bond, where it is used as the required return on the bond.
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8)
A firm can lower its break-even level by doing which of the following actions?
- A) Lowering direct cost
- B) Increasing variable cos
- C) Increasing direct cost
- D) Lowering sales price
Right Answer is the option "A"
-
9)
Which one of the following statements applies to Dividend Growth Model?
- A) It is difficult to understand and use
- B) It is used for non-listed companies
- C) It is used for debt securities also
- D) It do not consider risk level of a security
Right Answer is the option "D". This approach does not take into account the risk level
-
10)
Which of the following is the principal advantage of high debt financing?
- A) Tax savings
- B) Low Bankruptcy costs
- C) Minimum financial risk
- D) Low financial leverage
Right Answer is the option "A". According to M & M model, debt financing increases the value of firm due to tax shield
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Accounting, Banking and Finance MCQs
Corporate Finance
Quiz # 1, MCQs
-
1)
Which of the following is a tool that identifies the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats of an organization?
- A) SWOT Analysis
- B) Trend Analysis
- C) Fundamental Analysis
- D) Technical Analysis
Right Answer is the option "A". SWOT stands for • Strengths • Weaknesses • Opportunities • Threats
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2)
Which one of the following terms refers to the variability of return on stocks or portfolios, associated with changes in return on the market as a whole?
- A) Unsystematic risk
- B) Unique risk
- C) Systematic risk
- D) Company specific risk
Right Answer is the option "C"
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3)
What will be the taxable income of an Un-levered firm, if it has Earning Before Interest and Tax (EBIT) equal to Rs.50,000, and its tax rate is 35%?
- A) Rs.25,000
- B) Rs.45, 000
- C) Rs.50, 000
- D) Rs.60,000
Right Answer is the option "C". Earnings before Taxes (EBT) = Taxable Income
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4)
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding temporary working capital?
- A) Temporary working capital varies with seasonal requirements.
- B) Temporary working capital is the constant component of working capital.
- C) Temporary working capital excludes inventories.
- D) Temporary working capital should be financed with bonds or common stock
Right Answer is the option "A". The temporary or varying working capital varies with the volume of operations. It fluctuates with the scale of operations. This is the additional working capital required from time to time over and above the permanent or fixed working capital. During seasons, more production/sales take place resulting in larger working capital needs. The reverse is true during off-seasons. As seasons vary, temporary working capital requirement moves up and down
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5)
Which of the following describes the hedging approach to financing?
- A) Maturity dates of financing instruments are spread over a period of time so that they mature in a steady, predictable fashion.
- B) Each asset is offset with a financing instrument of the same approximate maturity.
- C) Each asset is offset with a put or call option.
- D) The firm takes out insurance to protect itself against uneven cash flows.
Right Answer is the option "B"
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6)
In which of the following acquisition strategies, a purchaser has complete knowledge of the acquiring firm?
- A) Management Buy-In
- B) Management buyout
- C) Consolidation
- D) Amalgamation
Right Answer is the option "B". Management buyouts are similar in all major legal aspects to any other acquisition of a company. The particular nature of the MBO lies in the position of the buyers as managers of the company and the practical consequences that follow from that. In particular, the due diligence process is likely to be limited as the buyers already have full knowledge of the company available to them. The seller is also unlikely to give any but the most basic warranties to the management, on the basis that the management knows more about the company than the sellers do and the Reference ore the sellers should not have to warrant the state of the company. In many cases, the company will already be a private company, but if it is public then the management will take it private.
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7)
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT regarding exercise price?
- A) Exercise price is the price mentioned in the option at which the holder exercises his right
- B) Exercise price is the price mentioned in the option at which the holder exercises his obligation
- C) Exercise price is the price mentioned in the option at which the option seller exercises his right
- D) Exercise price is the price mentioned in the option at which the option writer exercises his right
Right Answer is the option "A". Strike or exercise price: The price mentioned in option at which the holder exercises his right is known as exercise or strike price.
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8)
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Options Contacts?
- A) A put option gives the holder a right to sell underlying item at a specified price
- B) A put option gives its writer the right to sell underlying item at a specified price
- C) A call option gives its writer a right to sell underlying item
- D) A call option gives its holder a right to sell underlying item
Right Answer is the option "A"
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9)
Which of the following is a method of evaluating securities by analyzing statistics generated by market activity, such as past prices and volume?
- A) Technical analysis
- B) Fundamental analysis
- C) Common size analysis
- D) Ratio analysis
Right Answer is the option "A". Technical analysis is the method of evaluating traded products by analyzing statistics generated by market activity, such as past prices and volume. Technical analysts believe that the price contains all known information and therefore technical analysts do not attempt to measure a security's intrinsic value, but instead use charts and other tools to identify patterns that can suggest future activity.
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10)
Which of the following is NOT one of the common motives of holding cash?
- A) Personal Motives
- B) Safety Motives
- C) Transactions Motives
- D) Speculative Motives
Right Answer is the option "A". Transactions Motive ensures that the firm has enough funds to transact its routine, day-to-day business affairs. Safety Motive protects the firm against being unable to meet unexpected demands for cash. Speculative Motive allows the firm to take advantage of unexpected opportunities that may arise
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Accounting, Banking and Finance MCQs
Business Finance
Quiz # 4, MCQs
-
1)
When real rate is high, all the interest rates tend to be _______.
- A) Higher
- B) Lower
- C) Constant
- D) None of the given options
Right Answer is the option "A"
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2)
Based on ________ the investment is accepted if the _____ exceeds the required return. It should be rejected otherwise.
- A) Profitability index
- B) Payback period
- C) Internal rate of return
- D) Net present value
Right Answer is the option "C"
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3)
Profitability index (PI) rule is to take an investment, if the index exceeds______:
- A) -1
- B) 0
- C) 1
- D) 2
Right Answer is the option "C"
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4)
Average Accounting Return is a measure of accounting profit relative to:
- A) Book value
- B) Intrinsic value
- C) Cost
- D) Market value
Right Answer is the option "A"
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5)
Which of the following is the cheapest source of financing available to a firm?
- A) Bank loan
- B) Commercial papers
- C) Trade credit
- D) None of the given options.
Right Answer is the option "C"
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6)
. ---------------- refers to the extent to which fixed-income securities (debt and preferred stock) are used in a firm's capital structure.
- A) Financial risk
- B) Portfolio risk
- C) Operating risk
- D) Market risk
Right Answer is the option "A"
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7)
The use of Personal borrowing to alter the degree of financial leverage is called
- A) Homemade leverage
- B) Financial leverage
- C) Operating leverage
- D) None of the given option
Right Answer is the option "A"
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8)
. _______________ refers to the most valuable alternative that is given up if a particular investment is undertaken.
- A) Sunk cost
- B) Opportunity cost
- C) Financing cost
- D) All of the given options
Right Answer is the option "B"
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9)
A model which makes an assumption about the future growth of dividends is known as:
- A) Dividend Price Model
- B) Dividend Growth Model
- C) Dividend Policy Model
- D) All of the given options
Right Answer is the option "B"
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10)
Which of the following is not a quality of IRR ?
- A) Most widely used
- B) Ideal to rank the mutually exclusive investments
- C) Easily communicated and understood
- D) Can be estimated even without knowing the discount rate
Right Answer is the option "B"
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Accounting, Banking and Finance MCQs
Business Finance
Quiz # 3, MCQs
-
1)
A standardized financial statement presenting all items of the statement as a percentage of total is:
- A) a common-size statement
- B) an income statemen
- C) a cash flow statement
- D) a balance sheet
Right Answer is the option "A"
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2)
The Du Pont Identity tells us that Return on Equity is affected by:
- A) The Du Pont Identity tells us that Return on Equity is affected by:
- B) asset use efficiency (as measured by total assets turnover)
- C) financial Leverage (as measured by equity multiplier)
- D) all of the given options (a, b and c)
Right Answer is the option "D"
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3)
A series of constant cash flows that occur at the end of each period for some fixed number of periods is ____________ .
- A) an ordinary annuity
- B) annuity due
- C) multiple cash flows
- D) perpetuity
Right Answer is the option "A"
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4)
Which of the following is the overall return the firm must earn on its existing assets to maintain the value of the stock?
- A) IRR (Internal Rate of Return)
- B) MIRR (Modified Internal Rate of Return)
- C) WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital)
- D) AAR (Average Accounting Return)
Right Answer is the option "C"
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5)
In which type of projects, the unequal lives of the projects do affect the analysis ?
- A) Mutually exclusive
- B) Dependent
- C) Independent
- D) Correlated
Right Answer is the option "C"
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6)
Which of the following is known as the group of assets such as stocks and bonds held by an investor ?
- A) Stock Bundle
- B) Portfolio
- C) Capital Structure
- D) None of the given options
Right Answer is the option "C"
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7)
Which of the following relationships holds TRUE if a bond sells at a discount?
- A) Bond Price < Par Value and YTM > coupon rate
- B) Bond Price > Par Value and YTM > coupon rate
- C) Bond Price > Par Value and YTM < coupon rate
- D) Bond Price < Par Value and YTM < coupon rate
Right Answer is the option "A"
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8)
Which of the following is the process of planning and managing a firm’s long-term investments?
- A) Capital Structuring
- B) Capital Rationing
- C) Capital Budgeting
- D) Working Capital Management
Right Answer is the option "C"
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9)
Which of the following strategy belongs to restrictive policy regarding size of investments in current assets?
- A) To maintain a high ratio of current assets to sales
- B) To maintain a low ratio of current assets to sales
- C) To less short-term debt and more long-term debt
- D) To more short-term debt and less long-term debt
Right Answer is the option "B"
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10)
Which of the following statement is CORRECT regarding compound interest?
- A) It is the most basic form of calculating interest.
- B) It earns profit not only on principal but also on interest.
- C) It is calculated by multiplying principal by rate multiplied by time.
- D) It does not take into account the accumulated interest for calculation.
Right Answer is the option "C"
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Accounting, Banking and Finance MCQs
Business Finance
Quiz # 2, MCQs
-
1)
Which of the following ratios are particularly interesting to short-term creditors?
- A) Liquidity Ratios
- B) Long-term Solvency Ratios
- C) Profitability Ratios
- D) Market Value Ratios
Right Answer is the option "A"
-
2)
Quick Ratio is also known as:
- A) Current Ratio
- B) Acid-test Ratio
- C) Cash Ratio
- D) Solvency Ratio
Right Answer is the option "B"
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3)
A portion of profits, which a company retains itself for further expansion, is known as:
- A) Dividends
- B) Retained Earnings
- C) Capital Gain
- D) None of the given options
Right Answer is the option "B"
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4)
Which of the following is measured by profit margin?
- A) Operating efficiency
- B) Asset use efficiency
- C) Financial policy
- D) Dividend policy
Right Answer is the option "A"
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5)
Which of the following set of ratios is used to assess a business's ability to generate earnings as compared to its expenses and other relevant costs incurred during a specific period of time?
- A) Liquidity Ratios
- B) Leverage Ratios
- C) Profitability Ratios
- D) Market Value Ratios
Right Answer is the option "D"
-
6)
A company having a current ratio of 1 will have __________ net working capital.
- A) Positive
- B) Negative
- C) zero
- D) None of the given options
Right Answer is the option "A"
-
7)
Which of the following equation is known as Cash Flow (CF) identity?
- A) CF from Assets = CF to Creditors – CF to Stockholder
- B) CF from Assets = CF to Stockholders – CF to Creditors
- C) CF to Stockholders = CF to Creditors + CF from Assets
- D) CF from Assets = CF to Creditors + CF to Stockholder
Right Answer is the option "D"
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8)
The difference between current assets and current liabilities is known as:
- A) Surplus Asset
- B) Short-term Ratio
- C) Working Capital
- D) Current Ratio
Right Answer is the option "C"
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9)
The principal amount of a bond at issue is called:
- A) Par value
- B) Coupon value
- C) Present value of an annuity
- D) Present value of a lump sum
Right Answer is the option "A"
-
10)
Which of the following is the process of planning and managing a firm‟s long-term investments?
- A) Capital Structuring
- B) Capital Rationing
- C) Capital Budgeting
- D) Working Capital Management
Right Answer is the option "C"
