Showing posts with label Entry Test. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Entry Test. Show all posts

AIPMT Sample Test

Instructions

» Total number of Questions 28
» Total number of Sections 3
» Time Allowed 28 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



AIPMT - All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test


NOTE: Attempt all Questions to see the Result at the bottom of this page. The Timer has started 60:00



PHYSICS


  1. 1)


    Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on block B is:


    • A) 100 N
    • B) 80 N
    • C) 120 N
    • D) 150 N

  2. 2)

    A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to:


    • A) 44 %
    • B) 50 %
    • C) 56 %
    • D) 62 %

  3. 3)

    A red LED emits light at 0.1 watt uniformly around it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of 1 m from the diode is:


    • A) 1.73 V/m
    • B) 2.45 V/m
    • C) 5.48 V/m
    • D) 7.75 V/m

  4. 4)

    A On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases with height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam:


    • A) becomes narrower
    • B) goes horizontally without any deflection
    • C) bends downwards
    • D) bends upwards

  5. 5)

    Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of 25 cm, the minimum separation between two objects that human eye can resolve at 500 nm wavelength is:


    • A) 1 μm
    • B) 30 μm
    • C) 100 μm
    • D) 300 μm

  6. 6)

    As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like atom/ ion:


    • A) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
    • B) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
    • C) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same
    • D) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases

  7. 7)

    A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. the frequencies of the resultant signal is/are:


    • A) 2 MHz only
    • B) 2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz
    • C) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
    • D) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz


  8. CHEMISTRY


  9. 8)

    Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius of sodium atom is approximately


    • A) 1.86 Å
    • B) 3.22 Å
    • C) 5.72 Å
    • D) 0.93 Å

  10. 9)

    Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen?


    • A) +13.6 eV
    • B) –6.8 eV
    • C) –3.4 eV
    • D) –3.4 eV

  11. 10)

    The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is


    • A) Ion-ion interaction
    • B) Ion-dipole interaction
    • C) London force
    • D) Hydrogen bond

  12. 11)

    The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass of the substance is:


    • A) 32
    • B) 64
    • C) 128
    • D) 488

  13. 12)

    Two faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)


    • A) 0 g
    • B) 63.5 g
    • C) 2 g
    • D) 127 g

  14. 13)

    Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to


    • A) Low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
    • B) Increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved
    • C) Shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions
    • D) Loss of active species on collision

  15. 14)

    3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is


    • A) 18 mg
    • B) 36 mg
    • C) 42 mg
    • D) 54 mg


  16. BIOLOGY


  17. 15)

    Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements:

    (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock
    (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
    (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
    (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes is sporophytic
    (E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte.


    • A) (A),(C) and (D)
    • B) (B),(C) and (D)
    • C) (A),(D) and (E)
    • D) (B),(C) and (E)

  18. 16)

    In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living


    • A) Funaria
    • B) Marchantia
    • C) Pteris
    • D) Pinus

  19. 17)

    Which one of the following statements is wrong?


    • A) Algin and carrageen are products of algae
    • B) Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
    • C) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
    • D) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

  20. 18)

    The guts of cow and buffalo possess


    • A) Fucus spp.
    • B) Chlorella spp.
    • C) Methanogens
    • D) Cyanobacteria

  21. 19)

    Male gametes are flagellated in


    • A) Polysiphonia
    • B) anabaena
    • C) Ectocarpus
    • D) Spirogyra

  22. 20)

    Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because


    • A) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
    • B) Cambium is absent
    • C) There are no vessels with perforations
    • D) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

  23. 21)

    A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of


    • A) Open vascular bundles
    • B) Scattered vascular bundles
    • C) Vasculature without cambium
    • D) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem along the radius

  24. 22)

    Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of


    • A) Tulip
    • B) Indigofera
    • C) Aloe
    • D) Tomato

  25. 23)

    Perigynous flowers are found in


    • A) Guava
    • B) Cucumber
    • C) China rose
    • D) Rose

  26. 24)

    Leaves become modified into spins in


    • A) Opuntia
    • B) Pea
    • C) Onion
    • D) Silk Cotton

  27. 25)

    The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are


    • A) Cristae
    • B) Grana
    • C) Stroma lamellae
    • D) Stroma

  28. 26)

    The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are


    • A) Metacentric
    • B) Acrocentric
    • C) Telocentric
    • D) Sub-metacentric

  29. 27)

    Select the correct matching in the following pairs


    • A) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
    • B) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
    • C) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
    • D) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids

  30. 28)

    True nucleus is absent in


    • A) Anabaena
    • B) Mucor
    • C) Vaucheria
    • D) Volvox

 

JEE Main Sample

Instructions

» Total number of Questions 30
» Total number of Sections 3
» Time Allowed 60 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



JEE Main


NOTE: Attempt all Questions to see the Result at the bottom of this page. The Timer has started 60:00



PHYSICS


  1. 1)


    Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on block B is:


    • A) 100 N
    • B) 80 N
    • C) 120 N
    • D) 150 N

  2. 2)

    A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to:


    • A) 44 %
    • B) 50 %
    • C) 56 %
    • D) 62 %

  3. 3)

    A red LED emits light at 0.1 watt uniformly around it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of 1 m from the diode is:


    • A) 1.73 V/m
    • B) 2.45 V/m
    • C) 5.48 V/m
    • D) 7.75 V/m

  4. 4)

    A On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases with height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam:


    • A) becomes narrower
    • B) goes horizontally without any deflection
    • C) bends downwards
    • D) bends upwards

  5. 5)

    Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of 25 cm, the minimum separation between two objects that human eye can resolve at 500 nm wavelength is:


    • A) 1 μm
    • B) 30 μm
    • C) 100 μm
    • D) 300 μm

  6. 6)

    As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like atom/ ion:


    • A) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
    • B) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
    • C) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same
    • D) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases

  7. 7)

    A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. the frequencies of the resultant signal is/are:


    • A) 2 MHz only
    • B) 2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz
    • C) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
    • D) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

  8. 8)

    Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry current I in the same direction. Let  F1 be
    the magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the outer one and  F2 be the magnetic
    force on the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then:


    • A) F1 = F2 = 0
    • B) F1 is radially inwards and F2 is radially outwards
    • C) F1 is radially inwards and F2 = 0
    • D) F1 is radially outwards and F2 = 0

  9. 9)


    In the circuit shown, the current in the 1 Ω resistor is:


    • A) 1.3 A from P to Q
    • B) 0 A
    • C) 0.13 A, from Q to P
    • D) 0.13 A, from P to Q

  10. 10)

    A solid body of constant heat capacity 1 J/°C is being heated by keeping it in contact with reservoirs in two ways:
    (i) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same amount of heat.
    (ii) Sequentially keeping in contact with 8 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same amount of heat.
    In both the cases body is brought from initial temperature 100 °C to final temperature 200 °C. Entropy change of the body in the two cases respectively is:


    • A) ln2, 4ln2
    • B) ln2, ln2
    • C) ln2, 2ln2
    • D) 2ln2, 8ln2


  11. CHEMISTRY


  12. 11)

    Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius of sodium atom is approximately


    • A) 1.86 Å
    • B) 3.22 Å
    • C) 5.72 Å
    • D) 0.93 Å

  13. 12)

    Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen?


    • A) +13.6 eV
    • B) –6.8 eV
    • C) –3.4 eV
    • D) –3.4 eV

  14. 13)

    The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is


    • A) Ion-ion interaction
    • B) Ion-dipole interaction
    • C) London force
    • D) Hydrogen bond

  15. 14)

    The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass of the substance is:


    • A) 32
    • B) 64
    • C) 128
    • D) 488

  16. 15)

    Two faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)


    • A) 0 g
    • B) 63.5 g
    • C) 2 g
    • D) 127 g

  17. 16)

    Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to


    • A) Low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
    • B) Increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved
    • C) Shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions
    • D) Loss of active species on collision

  18. 17)

    3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is


    • A) 18 mg
    • B) 36 mg
    • C) 42 mg
    • D) 54 mg

  19. 18)

    Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy?


    • A) CaSO4
    • B) BeSO4
    • C) BaSO4
    • D) SrSO4

  20. 19)

    The color of KMnO4 is due to:


    • A) M → L charge transfer transition
    • B) d - d transition
    • C) L → M charge transfer transition
    • D) σ – σ* transition

  21. 20)

    50. Assertion: Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen.
    Reason: The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature.


    • A) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion
    • B) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion
    • C) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct
    • D) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect


  22. MATHEMATICS


  23. 21)

    Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements respectively. Then the number of subsets of the set AB, each having at least three elements is:


    • A) 219
    • B) 256
    • C) 275
    • D) 510

  24. 22)

    The set of all values of λ for which the system of linear equations:
    2x1- 2x2 + x3 = λx1
    2x1 - 3x2 + 2x3 = λx2
    -x1+2x2 = λx3
    has a non-trivial solution,


    • A) is an empty set.
    • B) is a singleton.
    • C) contains two elements.
    • D) contains more than two elements.

  25. 23)

    The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8, without repetition, is:


    • A) 216
    • B) 192
    • C) 120
    • D) 72

  26. 24)

    The number of points, having both co-ordinates as integers, that lie in the interior of the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (0, 41) and (41, 0), is:


    • A) 901
    • B) 861
    • C) 820
    • D) 780

  27. 25)

    Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line (2x - 3y + 4) + k (x – 2y+3) = 0, k ε R, is a:


    • A) straight line parallel to x-axis.
    • B) straight line parallel to y-axis.
    • C) circle of radius √2.
    • D) circle of radius √3.

  28. 26)

    84. The equation of the plane containing the line 2x - 5y + z = 3, x + y + 4z = 5, and parallel to the plane, x + 3y + 6z = 1, is:


    • A) 2x + 6y + 12z = 13
    • B) x + 3y + 6z = -7
    • C) x + 3y + 6z = 7
    • D) 2x + 6y + 12z = -13

  29. 27)

    87. The mean of the data set comprising of 16 observations is 16. If one of the observation valued 16 is deleted and three new observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added to the data, then the mean of the resultant data, is:


    • A) 16.8
    • B) 16.0
    • C) 15.8
    • D) 14.0

  30. 28)

    88. If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from three collinear points A, B and C, on a line leading to the foot of the tower, are 30°, 45° and 60° respectively, then the ratio, AB : BC, is:


    • A) √3:1
    • B) √3: √2
    • C) 1: √3
    • D) 2:3

  31. 29)

    90. The negation of ~ S ⋁ (~ r ⋀ s) is equivalent to:


    • A) s ⋀ ~ r
    • B) s ⋀ (r ⋀ ~ s)
    • C) s ⋁ (r ⋁ ~ s)
    • D) s ⋀ r

  32. 30)

    The given differential equation


    • A) is Over damped
    • B) is Critically damped
    • C) is Under damped
    • D) None of them

 

Home

Entry Test



Home

Entry Test

GAT-General Sample Test




Instructions

» Total number of Questions 27
» Total number of Sections 3
» Time Allowed 32 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



Home

Entry Test

NAT-IM Sample Test




Instructions

» Total number of Questions 32
» Total number of Sections 6
» Time Allowed 42 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



Home

Entry Test

NAT-IGS Sample Test




Instructions

» Total number of Questions 29
» Total number of Sections 6
» Time Allowed 38 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



Home

Entry Test

NAT-IE Sample Test




Instructions

» Total number of Questions 32
» Total number of Sections 7
» Time Allowed 42 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



Home

Entry Test

NAT-ICS Sample Test




Instructions

» Total number of Questions 29
» Total number of Sections 6
» Time Allowed 38 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



Home

Entry Test

NAT-ICOM Sample Test




Instructions

» Total number of Questions 32
» Total number of Sections 6
» Time Allowed 42 Minutes




The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.


Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.



Home

Entry Test

GAT-General Sample Test

GAT-General





NOTE: Attempt all Questions to see the Result at the bottom of this page. The Timer has started 32:00



English Section

    Synonyms

  1. 1)

    RESTIVE


    • A) Restful
    • B) Restless
    • C) Crucial
    • D) Pause

  2. 2)

    CRAVEN


    • A) Cowardly
    • B) Laziness
    • C) Politely
    • D) Arrogant
  3. Antonyms

  4. 3)

    PERFIDY


    • A) To impure
    • B) Thoroughness
    • C) Purification
    • D) Loyalty

  5. 4)

    EFFICACY


    • A) Strange
    • B) Well-known
    • C) Inefficiency
    • D) Effectiveness
  6. Analogies

    Recognize the relation between the given pair of words (in capital). And, select the pair of words from the given options that best expresses a relationship similar to that in capital pair of words.

  7. 5)

    CARPENTER : SAW


    • A) athlete : runner
    • B) assembly : member
    • C) mason : wall
    • D) reaper : sickle

  8. 6)

    MENDACITY : HONESTY


    • A) courage : cravenness
    • B) wickedness : lie
    • C) money : wealth
    • D) acclaim : truthfulness
  9. Summary Completion

    Complete the following summary with suitable answers

    When you can measure (7)__________ you are speaking about, and express it (8)__________ numbers, you know something (9)__________ it; when you cannot measure it, when you cannot (10)__________ it in numbers, your knowledge is of a meager and unsatisfactory kind; it may be the beginning of knowledge, but you have (11)__________, in your thoughts, advanced to the stage of science

  10. 7)


    • A) when
    • B) what
    • C) where
    • D) whom

  11. 8)


    • A) in
    • B) to
    • C) from
    • D) with

  12. 9)


    • A) for
    • B) within
    • C) about
    • D) nearly

  13. 10)


    • A) tell
    • B) ask
    • C) say
    • D) express

  14. 11)


    • A) immature
    • B) scarcely
    • C) arrogantly
    • D) lack
  15. Grammar


  16. 12)

    Ali, Umar and I __________ going.


    • A) am
    • B) was
    • C) are
    • D) have been

  17. 13)

    If I __________ time, I would have purchased it yesterday.


    • A) had had
    • B) would had
    • C) would have
    • D) had have
  18. Reading Comprehension

    Read the following paragraphs carefully and choose the correct answers from the options given below

    These huge waves wreak terrific damage when they crash on the shores of distant lands or continents. Under a perfectly sunny sky and from an apparently calm sea, a wall of water may break twenty or thirty feet high over beaches and waterfronts, crushing houses and drowning unsuspecting residents and bathers in its path. How are these waves formed? When a submarine earthquake occurs, it is likely to set up a tremendous amount of shock, disturbing the quite waters of the deep ocean. This disturbance travels to the surface and forms a huge swell in the ocean many miles across. It rolls outward in all directions, and the water lowers in the centre as another as another swell looms up. Thus a series of concentric swells are formed similar to those made when a coin or small pebble is dropped into a basin of water. The big difference is in the size. Each of the concentric rings of basin water traveling out toward the edge is only about an inch across and less than a quarter of an inch high. The swells in the ocean are sometimes nearly a mile wide and rise to several multiple of ten feet in height. Many of us have heard about these waves, called "tsunami". Nothing was done about tsunamis until after World War II. An underwater earthquake in the Aleutian Islands could start a swell that would break along the shores and cause severe damage. These waves travel hundreds of miles an hour, and one can understand how they would crash!

  19. 14)

    One surprising aspect of the waves discussed in the passage is the fact that they


    • A) are formed in concentric patterns
    • B) often strike during clear weather
    • C) arise under conditions of cold temperature
    • D) are produced by deep swells

  20. 15)

    It is believed that the waves are caused by


    • A) seismic changes
    • B) concentric time belts
    • C) underwater earthquakes
    • D) storms

  21. 16)

    The normal maximum width of the waves is approximately


    • A) one mile
    • B) five miles
    • C) five feet
    • D) ten feet

  22. 17)

    Nothing was done about the waves until


    • A) deaths occurred
    • B) a solution was found
    • C) millions of dollars worth of damage was incurred
    • D) the outbreak of World War II

  23. 18)

    The movement of the waves has been measured at a speed of


    • A) 1 mile an hour
    • B) 50 miles an hour
    • C) 100 miles an hour
    • D) more than a hundred miles an hour


  24. Analytical Reasoning Section

    Question (19-23) 7 persons live in a street, having houses in line. Consider the following:

    1. A lives in the corner’s house
    2. C is between E and G
    3. There is 1 house between D and F
    4. F is neighbor of G
    5. There are two houses between A and G

  25. 19)

    Who lives in the second corner?


    • A) B
    • B) C
    • C) D
    • D) E
    • E) F

  26. 20)

    Who lives in the middle?


    • A) C
    • B) D
    • C) E
    • D) F
    • E) G

  27. 21)

    Who lives between B and G?


    • A) C
    • B) D
    • C) E
    • D) F
    • E) G

  28. 22)

    __________ is neighbor of A?


    • A) B
    • B) C
    • C) E
    • D) F
    • E) G

  29. 23)

    There are __________ houses between B and E?


    • A) 0
    • B) 1
    • C) 2
    • D) 3
    • E) 4


  30. Quantitative Section


  31. 24)

    Solve for x : when x/2+3 =x-y


    • A) x=y+2
    • B) x=y+4
    • C) x=y+6
    • D) x=2y+4
    • E) x=2y+6

  32. 25)

    The straight line 2x +3y+4=0 touches the x- axis at?


    • A) x = -2
    • B) x = 2
    • C) x =1
    • D) x = -1
    • E) x = 0

  33. 26)



    Consider the larger circle and an inner circle. Point A is center of larger circle. If the line AB (not drawn) is 7 cm in length, then find the area of larger circle


    • A) 94 cm
    • B) 112 cm
    • C) 136 cm
    • D) 154 cm

  34. 27)



    The value of y in the above triangle is?


    • A) √16
    • B) 16
    • C) √32
    • D) 32